8432868/2026/O/o Clerical Hall JKSSB

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Booklet Serial No. 3356 49

Test Booklet Series

INSPECTOR,FPF OMR Examination-2026

Time Allowed:120 Minutes Maximum Marks:120

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number, Booklet Serial No. and Test Booklet Series Code A,B, CorD carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer/Response Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Response Sheet liable for rejection.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside .

DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test booklet contains 120 items(questions). Each item comprises offour responses(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet/Response Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the appropriate. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer/Response Sheet provided. See directions in the Response Sheet.

6. AIl items carry equal marks.

7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should handover to the Invigilator only the Answer/Response Sheet. You are permitted to takeaway with you the Test Booklet and Candidate’s Copy of the Response Sheet .

8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

9. While writing Centre Code and Roll No. on the top of the Answer Sheet/Response Sheet in appropriate boxes use“ONLY BLUE/BLACK BALLPOINT PEN”.

10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE IN THE WRITTEN TEST(OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS PAPERS).

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate,((%))ofthe marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.

(iii) Ifa question is left blank,i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

(Set-A)

1. What does the idiom"break the ice"mean?

A) To build a wall

B) To start a conversation

C) To cause a disruption

D) To make a mistake

2. What does the idiom"hit the nail on the head"mean?

A) To criticize someone harshly

B) To miss the target

C) To hit something hard

D) To be exactly right or accurate

3. Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word .

The speaker's argument was compelling enough to persuade the audience.

A) Convincing B) Boring

C) Criticizing

D) Harsh

4. Select the most appropriate synonym ofthe underlined word His explanation was ambiguous, leaving the audience confused.

A) Direct B) Clear

C) Uncertain

D) Precise

5. Rearrange the parts of the sentence incorrect order.

P. often determines the success of collective efforts

Q. effective leadership

R. by aligning individual goals

S. with a shared vision and purpose

A) QPRS

B) QRPS

C) PQRS

D) PSQR

6. Rearrange the parts of the sentence incorrect order.

P. cannot be addressed through isolated actions

Q. complex environmental problems

R. that require coordinated global efforts

S. but demand long-term strategic planning

A) QPSR

B) QRPS

C) PQRS

D) PSQR

7. I am going to concert tomorrow.

A) A

B) On

C) An

D) None ofthe above

8. At equator, sunrise occurs at the same time each day.

A) A

B) The

C) An

D) None ofthe above

(Set-A) (3)

[P.T.O.

9. The doctor gave me a prescription my cough.

A) For

B) To

C) A

D) With

10. My watch is the table.

A) In

B) On

C) For D) None ofthe above

11. Volume of a cuboid oflength(l), width(b)and height(h)is

A) lbh B) lb+bh+hl

C) 2(1+b)h D) 2(lb+bh+hl)

12. The area ofa rhombus whose diagonals are oflengths 10cm and 8.2cm is

A) 82cm2 B) 410cm2

C) 41cm2 D) 820cm2

13. A circular pond has a circumference of22km. What is its diameter?

A) 15km B) 1.5km

C) 0.7km D) 7km

14. The distance covered by a tire of 84cm radius in 4 revolutions is

A) 1056cm B) 2112cm

C) 840cm D) 1840cm

15. The length of a field is increased by 50%, and its width is decreased by 40%. The percentage change in its area is

A) 5% increase

B) 15% increase

C) 20% decrease

D) 10% decrease

16. The linear equation 3x-11y=10 has

A) Unique solution

B) Two solutions

C) Infinitely many solutions

D) No solutions

17. Point(3,4)lies on the graph ofthe equation 3y=kx+7. The value ofk is

A) 4/5 B) 5/3

C) 4/3 D) 4/7

18. The graph oflinear equation x+2y=2, cuts they-axis at

A) (1,0) B) (2,0)

C) (0,1) D) (0,2)

19. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annumis Re.1. The sum(inRs.)is

A) 625 B) 635

C) 645 D) 655

(Set-A) (4)

File No.JKSSB-COE0EXAM(UT)/37/2024-03-SERVICE SELECTION BOARD(OUTSIDE SECT T)(Computer No.7595614)

Generated from eOffice by BISHAL VERMA, PMIT(KSSB)-BV, PRO ECT MANAGER,J&K SERVICE SELECTTON BOARD(OUTSSDE SECTT) on 08/06/202603:19 pm

20. The compound interest on Rs.30,000at 7% per annumis Rs.4347. The period (in years)is

A) 2.5 B) 2

C) 5 D) 4

21. ({\ 720\div12+18\times4\ }\div6+25%) of160=?

A) 88 B) 66

C) 62 D) 72

22. (480\div{,16-8\times(3/4),}+35%) of200-18=?

A) 111 B) 121

C) 100 D) 101

23. -(-3)(-2- 8-4) ÷[3 {5 +(-2)(-1)}] =?

A) 35 B) -34

C) -41 D) -2

24. What's the probability ofdrawing a red card ora card with a face(king, queen, orjack) from a standard deck of 52 cards?

25. What is the probability ofa sure event?

26. What is the probability of getting anumber greater than 6 on dice?

A) 1 B) 0.5

27. By selling a bicycle for Rs.2,850,a shopkeeper gains 14%. Ifthe profit is reduced to 8%, then the selling price will be

28. A shopkeeper marks his goods 30% above his cost price but allows a discount of 10% at the time ofsale. His gain is

A) 20% B) 2.5%

C) 15% D) 17%

29. If the selling price of 12 books is equivalent to the cost price of 18 copies, then calculate the profit percent.

A) 44%

B) 50%

C) 55%

D) 25%

(Set-A) (5) [P.T.O.

30. Rick bought cold drinksofRs.56000. Then he sold 1/3d of the total purchase to a 40% loss. How much profit does he need to earn on the remaining cold drinks to cover the loss?

A) 20%

B) 18%

C) 17%

D) 22%

31. With reference to'Rat-hole mining'as practicedin parts ofNortheast India, identify the correct statements.

I. It is a process of digging narrow horizontal tunnels into the hill slopes by extraction workers.

II. The National Green Tribunal has banned this practice.

IⅢⅢ. Acid Mine Drainage(AMD)caused by this practice is characterized by high pH levels, making the water highly alkaline.

A) I andⅢⅢⅢonly

C) I andⅡonly

B) Ⅱonly

D) All ofthe above

32. Select the correct statements about Eutrophication.

I. It is a general term describing aprocess in which nutrients accumulate in a body ofwater, resulting in increased growth oforganisms.

ⅡⅡ. It leads to an increase in levels ofdissolved oxygen,favoring fish growth.

A) I only

B) Ⅱonly

C) BothI andⅡⅡ

D) Neither InorⅡⅡ

33. Which ofthe following statements best describes'Altitudinal Migration'?

A) Movement ofMarine species towards the equator for warmer waters

B) Long-distance migration across continents to avoid harsh warm weather conditions

C) Short-distance animal migration to higher altitudes to escape extreme heat

D) Movement of Marine species towards the surface warm waters

34. As ofFebruary 2026, which ofthe following best describes India's progress towards its'Panchamrit'targets outlined at COP-26 held at Glasgow?

A) Indiahas successfully achieved the target of500GW ofnon-fossil fuel capacity..

B) India has decided to shift its net-zero target from 2070to2047.

C) Renewable energy accounts for more than 50% of India's daily electricity production.

D) India's total non-fossil power installed capacity crossed 50% of the total installed electricity capacity of the country.

35. Match the following Sustainable Development Goals(SDGs)to their primary objectives.

SDG

i SDG-6

ii. SDG-14

iii. SDG-15

iv. SDG-7

Choose the correct option:

A) i-a,ii-c, iii-b,iv-d

C) i-b,ii-a, iii-d,iv-c

Objectives

a. Life below water

b. Clean water and sanitation

c. Affordable and clean energy

d. Life on land

B) i-b,ii-d, iii-a,iv-c

D) i-c,ii-a, iii-d,iv-b

(Set-A) (6)

36. Selectthe correct statements about the SwacchVayu Survekshan awards,2025.

I. Indore secured first rank with a score of 200 out of 200 in Category-1(states having over 10 lakh population).

II. Amravati secured first rankin Category-2(states having population between 3 and 10 lakh).

IⅢⅢ. Dewas secured firstrankin Category-3(states having a population under 3 lakh).

A) I only

B) I andⅡonly

C) Ⅱand IⅡⅡonly

D) All ofthe above

37. Arrange the following steps in Environment Impact Assessment(EIA)incorrect chronological order.

L Screening

ⅡⅡ. Scoping

IⅢI. EIA Report

ⅣV Impact Analysis

V Review and Public Participation

A) I-ⅡⅡ-III-IV-V

B) I-ⅡⅡ-IV-V-ⅢⅢ

C) I-II-IV-III-V

D) I-ⅡⅡI-ⅢⅢI-V-IV

38. Which ofthe following authorities are constituted under the umbrella ofthe Wildlife Protection Act,1972, for wildlife conservation?

I. Central Zoo Authority

ⅡI. State Board for Wildlife

ⅢⅢⅢ. National Tiger Conservation Authority

ⅣV. National Coastal Zone Management Authority

Choose the correct option:

A) I andⅡⅡonly

B) I,ⅡⅡandⅢⅢⅢonly

C) I,ⅢⅢⅢandIV only

D) All ofthe above

39. As perLand Use Statistics(2022-23), published by the Ministry ofAgriculture & Farmers'Welfare, what is the percentage of'NetSown Area'to the'Total Reported Area'in Jammu and Kashmir?

A) 19.01%

B) 18.4%

C) More than 20%

D) Less than 17%

40. Which ofthe following pairs are correctly matched?

Bird Sanctuary

I. Atapaka Bird Sanctuary

II. SalimAli Bird Sanctuary

III. Attiveri Bird Sanctuary

Choose the correct option:

A) I andⅡⅡonly

B) ⅡandⅢⅢⅡonly

C) I andⅢonly

D) All ofthe above

(Set-A)

[P.T.O.

41. A satellite is orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit at a height where the acceleration due to gravity is 4.9 (\mathrm{m}/\mathrm{s}^{2}). If the radius of the Earth is 6,371 km, what is the orbital speed ofthe satellite?(Use g=9.8m/s², √2=1.414 and √10=3.162)

A) 4.6km/s

B) 6.6km/s

C) 9.8km/s

D) 11.2km/s

42. A metal rod is heated at one end, and the temperature at the other end rises slowly over time. At the same time,a sealed glass flask filled with water is placed over aflame, and the water temperature rises quickly. Which ofthe following statements is correct regarding modes ofheat transfer in each scenario(Rod and Flask)?

A) Rod:Convection;Flask:Conduction and Radiation

B) Rod:Conduction;Flask:Convection and Radiation

C) Rod:Conduction;Flask:Convection

D) Rod:Radiation;Flask:Convection

43. An object 2m tallis placedata distance of50cm in front ofa convex lens. The lens has a power of+5D. Calculate the height and nature ofthe image formed by the lens.

A) 1m, virtual and erect

B) 1.33m, real and inverted

C) 1.5m, real and inverted

D) 1.6m, virtual and erect

44. Which ofthe following statements about cells is NOT true?

A) Plasma membrane is selective permeable that regulates the movement ofnutrients into and out of the cell.

B) Cell interior contains many specialized membrane-bound organelles.

C) Mitochondria are organelles responsible for energy transactions needed for cell survival.

D) Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles responsible for protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells.

45. Which of the following metals produce hydrogen gas on reaction with dilute nitric acid?

A) Copper(Cu)

B) Zinc(Zn)

C) Magnesium(Mg)

D) All ofthe above

46. Which of the following statements about conventional sources of energy and their improvements is true?

A) Thermal power plants cannot exceed 35% efficiency, even with advanced boiler technology.

B) Supercritical and ultra-supercritical boilers allow coal power plants to achieve higher efficiency.

C) Hydroelectric power plants cannot improve energy output once the dam is built.

D) Efficiency of petroleum refining is solely determined by the quality of crude oil, not technology.

47. Which of the following statements about non-conventional sources of energy and their improvements is correct?

A) Commercial Solar panels can only convert 10-12% ofsunlight into electricity.

B) Wind energy efficiency improves by using larger and more aerodynamically designed blades.

C) Tidal energy cannot be harnessed effectively due to the predictability of tides.

D) Geothermal energy output is independent of drilling technology and heat extraction methods.

48. Match Column-I with Column-I

Column-I

i. Cesium

ii. Zinc

iii. Iodine

iv. Graphite

Column-II

a. A non-metal that is lustrous

b. A metal that is brittle

c. A metal that has a low melting point

d. A non-metal that is a good conductor of electricity

Choose the correct option:

A) i-c,ii-b, iii-a,iv-d

B) i-b,ii-c, iii-a,iv-d

C) i-b,ii-c, iii-d,iv-a

D) i-c,ii-b, iii-d,iv-a

49. Metals P,Q, and R have different positions in the activity series. MetalP reacts vigorously with water, metal Q reacts slowly with acids, and metal R does not react with water or acids. Their oxides are PO,,QO, and (\mathrm{R}{2}\mathrm{O}{3}), respectively. Considering their reactivity and the methods typically used for extraction, which ofthe following correctly matches the metal with its most suitable extraction method?

A) P- Electrolysis of molten oxide; Q-Reduction by carbon;R-Reduction by carbon.

B) P-Reduction by carbon;Q-Electrolysis of molten oxide;R-Electrolysis of molten oxide.

C) P-Electrolysis ofmolten oxide;Q-Reduction by carbon;R-Native metal, no extraction needed .

D) P-Reduction by carbon;Q-Native metal, no extraction needed;R-Electrolysis of molten oxide.

50. Which ofthe following organisms exhibits parasitic nutrition?

A) Nitrosomonas

B) Amobea

C) Plasmodium

D) Paramecium

(Set-A) (9) [P.T.O.

51. Which ofthe following statements about transportation ofwater, food and minerals in plants is NOT correct?

A) The ascent ofsap in tall trees primarily occurs due to transpiration pull, cohesion, and adhesion forces rather than root pressure alone.

B) Xylem transports water and dissolved minerals mainly in an upward direction,, while phloem can transport food both upward and downward.

C) Phloem transport requires metabolic energy, whereas xylem transport is largely a passive process.

D) Minerals absorbed by roots move through phloem vessels to reach the leaves where they are utilized for photosynthesis.

52. Which ofthe following statements about excretion in plants and animals is correct?

A) Plants lack specialized excretory organs, so all metabolic wastes are removed exclusively through stomata by diffusion.

B) Plants assimilate ammonia into amino acids and can store waste in leaves, bark, and vacuoles.

C) In mammals, the primary nitrogenous waste is uric acid, which requires minimal water for excretion compared to ammonia.

D) Animals and plants both rely mainly on transpiration as their primary mechanism of excretion.

53. A city is located near a river and an industrial area. Overtime, scientists observed the following:

i. Fish in the river showed bioaccumulation ofa persistent chemical that caused neurological disorders in humans who consumed them.

ii. The air contained high levels ofa gas that reacts with water to form acid rain, damaging monuments and crops.

iii. Soil had elevated heavy metal concentrations, leading to reduced fertility and toxicity in plants.

On the basis ofthe given observations, pair each cause(i,ii, iii)with the corresponding pollutant(a,b,c)and answerthe correct statement

a) Mercury

b) Sulfur dioxide

c) Lead

A) i→ a,ii→ b, iii→c

B) i→a,ii c, iii→b

C) i→ b,ii→ c, iii→ a

D) i c,ii→b, iii→a

54. Consider the following jumbled food chain:

Grasshopper, Grass, Hawk, Frog, Snake

Ifthe energy content ofthe frog is xkJ, the energy available to the primary consumer is

A) 10xkJ

B) xkJ

C) x/10kJ

D) x/100kJ

(Set-A)

(10)

55. Which statement is TRUE regarding the relationship between ozone depletion and climate change?

A) CFCs destroy ozone and contribute to global warming.

B) Ozone depletion directly causes the greenhouse effect.

C) Greenhouse gases directly destroy ozone molecules.

D) Reducing CO2 emissions alone can fully restore the ozone layer..

56. Which of the following was NOT a character studied by Mendel in his experiments with Pisumsativum?

A) Stem Height

B) Flower shape

C) Pod shape and colour

D) Seed shape and colour

57. Ali was breeding two Pisumsativum plants for plant height and seed shape. He noticed the following in the offspring:

All plants were Tall

Seed shape ratio:3(Round):1(Wrinkled)

How many possible combinations(unordered)ofparental genotypes could produce this result?

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

58. Raghav is trying to understand when plant cells are haploid(N)or diploid(2N)during sexual reproduction. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) The microspore and megaspore are diploid(2N)cells that undergo meiosis, and the fertilized zygote remains haploid(N).

B) The microspore and megaspore are haploid(N)cells formed after meiosis, and fertilization restores the diploid(2N)number in the zygote.

C) The pollen and ovule mother cells are haploid(N) before meiosis and form diploid gametes after meiosis.

D) The pollen and ovule mothercells are diploid(2N), and meiosis produces haploid gametes, but fertilization does not restore the diploid number.

59. Raghav was confused about how plants reproduce asexually. His teacher explained methods like Budding and Fragmentation, but Raghav wasn't sure how to tell them apart. Which ofthe following best distinguishes the two processes?

A) In budding,a small protrusion forms on the parent and may stay attached before detaching, while in fragmentation, the parent breaks into pieces, and each piece grows into a new organism.

B) In budding, offspring develop from specialized reproductive cells, whereas in fragmentation, the parent divides under environmental stress to form new organisms.

C) In budding,a small part of the parent detaches and grows into an independent organism, whereas in fragmentation, the parent splits into fragments that grow into independent organisms.

D) In budding, the offspring remain attached to the parent for awhile, while in fragmentation, the parent breaks into two parts that grow into independent organisms.

(Set-A)

60. Which ofthe following correctly matches the organism with its classification group?

A) OnlyⅡ

B) Only I andⅡⅡ

C) OnlyⅡandIV D) All ofthe above

61. Match the following books/texts with theirrespective authors

Books/Texts

i. Voice ofIndia

ii. Economic History ofIndia

iii. Unhappy India

iv. India Divided

Choose the correct match:

Authors

a. R.C.Dutt

b. DadabhaiNaoroji

c. RajendraPrasad

d. Lala LajpatRai

A) i-a,ii-b, iii-d,iv-c

B) i-a,ii-b, iii-c,iv-d

C) i-b,ii-a, iii-d,iv-c

D) i-b,ii-a, iii-c,iv-d

62. Which ofthe following pairs are correctly matched?

Geographical Discoveries

I. Cape ofGood Hope

ⅡⅡ. Solar System

ⅢⅢ. Australia

A) I only

B) Ⅲonly

C) I andⅢⅢonly

D) All ofthe above

Discoverers

VascoDe Gama

Kepler

James Cook

63. Consider the following information regarding the International Monetary Fund(IMF) and identify the INCORRECT statements.

I. Every member country has an equal voting power regardless of its financial contribution.

ⅡⅡ. The IMF created Special Drawing Rights(SDR)asan international reserve asset in 1969.

III. Private entities and individuals can also hold Special Drawing Rights(SDR).

A) I only

C) I andⅢⅢ only

B) Ⅱonly

D) ⅡandⅢⅢⅢonly

64. Which ofthe following Space Missions are successfully conducted by ISROto develop and demonstrate the technology needed for the docking andundocking of two small spacecraft in a low-Earth circular orbit?

A) AdityaL-1

B) Gaganyaan

C) NISAR

D) SPADEX

(Set-A) (12)

65. Which ofthe following personalities of Jammu and Kashmir was recently awarded PadmaShri(2026)for his/her social work?

A) OmarAbdullah

C) Rehman Rahi

B) Ghulam NabiAzad

D) BrijLalBhat

66. Following the 2019 Reorganization, while the legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir can legislate on state matters, which ofthe following subjects are exclusively reserved forthe Union government, unlike other states?

A) Public order and Police

B) Education and Health

C) Local self-government

D) Agriculture and Industries

67. Which ofthe following rivers are tributaries ofthe river Chenab?

I. Ujh river

Ⅱ. Marusudarriver

ⅢⅢ. Niru river

ⅣⅣ. Ans river

V Tawi river

Choose the correct option:

A) I,II,IV and Vonly

B) II,IV and V only

C) II, III,IV and V only

D) All ofthe above

68. Match the following:

Kashmir Sultans

i. Shams-ud-dinShah Mir

ii. SikandarButshikan

iii. YusufShah Chak

Major Contribution/Title

a. Establishment ofthe Sultanate in Kashmirin1339CE

b. Construction of the magnificent Jama Masjid in Srinagar in 1394AD

c. The last Independentruler of Kashmir

Choose the correct match:

A) i-a,ii-c, iii-b

B) i-b,ii-c, iii-a

C) i-a,ii-b, iii-c

D) i-b,ii-a, iii-c

69. According to the Indian State ofForest Report,2023, what is the'Total Forest Cover ofthe Union Territory ofJammu and Kashmir as a percentage ofits total geographic area?

A) 38.15%

B) 37.15%

C) 39.15%

D) 36.15%

(Set-A) (13) [P.T.O.

70. Identify the correct statements about the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL)project

I. Indian Railway's first cable-stayed bridge has been constructed over the Anji Khad in this project.

ⅡI. The iconic 1315m long Chenab bridge is the World's highestrailway arch bridge, standing 359m above the riverbed.

A) I only

C) Both I and II

B) Ⅱonly

D) Neither InorⅡⅡ

71. Complete the following number series

3, 3, 13, 81, 603,

A) 5291

B) 6691

C) 5491

D) 4891

72. Fill in the blanks with appropriate letters to complete the following letter series

a d k da d fk a dfkd

A) c,f,c,f,c

B) c,f,c,d,c

C) c,f,d,f,c

D) c,f,c,d,f

73. In a certain language, BRAIN is coded as TPKDC, then in that language, MINDS will be coded as

A) UPOKF B) NPOKF

C) TPOKF

D) ZPOKF

74. At5p.m.,Mr. Floyd is standing facing a tower. His shadow falls exactly to his right. After 30 minutes, he turns (180^{\circ}) and starts walking straight. In which direction is he walking?

A) East

B) North

C) South

D) West

75. Consider the following information and answer the given question

Misthe mother ofN.

N is the brother of O.

O is the wife of P.

Pis the son of Q.

How isO related to Q?

A) GrandDaughter

B) Mother

C) Daughter

D) Daughter-in-law

76. A pump fills a water tank.Ifits pumping speed is increased to 9/7 of its original speed, the tank gets filled 30 minutes earlierthan usual. How much time did the pump originally take to fill the tank?

A) 135 minutes

B) 140 minutes

C) 145 minutes

D) 150 minutes

(Set-A)

14(14)

77. Three boats,A,B and C, start from the same jetty and move in the same direction along a river. Their speeds in still water are 18km/h,24km/h and 36km/h, respectively. BoatBstarts 1 hour after Boat A. If Boat Band Boat Covertake Boat A at the same time, how many hours after Boat B did Boat C start?

A) 1hour

B) 2 hours

C) 3 hours

D) Cannot be determined

78. Choose the correct inference from the statements

Statements:

I. All scientists are researchers.

ⅡⅡ. No researcher is a poet

Conclusions:

I. No scientist is a poet.

ⅡI. Some researchers are definitely scientists.

A) Only Conclusion I follows

B) Only ConclusionⅡⅡfollows

C) Both I and IⅡfollow

D) Neither Inor II follow

79. Find the correct answer

IfSMART=96 and MIND=56, then PRO= _?

A) 55 B) 56

C) 57 D) 58

80. A company divides its total investment of Rs.12,00,000 among three projects A,B and C in the ratio 2:3:5. After one year:

ProjectA gives a return of 10% profit

Project B gives a return of20% profit

Project C incurs a 10% loss

What is the overall percentage gain or loss ofthe company?

A) 3% loss B) 3% profit

C) 3.6% profit

D) 3.6% loss

81. Following the suppression of the revolt of 1857, what major constitutional change was adopted via the Government ofIndia Act,1858?

A) Indians were allotted an equalrepresentation in the Indian Legislative Assembly,, similar to the Britishers.

B) The post ofGovernor ofBengal was transformed to Governor General ofIndia.

C) The power ofthe East India Company was abolished, and power was transferred to the British Crown.

D) The Indian Executive Council was composed mainly ofIndian leaders.

82. Which ofthe following administrative measures taken by Lord Lytton was a factor in the rise ofIndian Nationalism?

A) Ilbert Bill Controversy(1883)

B) Partition of Bengal(1905)

C) Formation ofthe Indian National Congress(1885)

D) Passing of the Vernacular Press Act(1878)

83. The'Safety Valve theory'propounded by leaders like LalaLajpatRai in the context of the formation ofthe Indian National Congress suggests that-

A) The British used Congress to directly recruit the Indians for World War-II.

B) The Congress was formed to protect small Indian Industries from British competition.

C) Congress was established as a platform to secure the religious interests and prevent communal disputes.

D) The congress was formed to provide a peaceful outlet for public discontent and prevent another revolt like 1857.

84. What was/were the primary political demands ofthe Moderates during the early phase ofthe Indian National Congress?

A) To attain Purna Swaraj

B) To allow separate electorates for all marginalized groups

C) Expansion ofLegislation Councils and greater representation of Indians in the Civil Services

D) Total boycott of British institutions like the Judiciary

85. Match the following in the context ofthe Swadeshi Movement-

Swadeshi Initiatives

i. Bengal Chemicals Factory

ii. Steam Navigation Company

iii. Dawn Society

iv SwadeshBandhab Samiti

Choose the correct option:

A) i-a,ii-c, iii-b,iv-d

B) i-b,ii-a, iii-d,iv-c

C) i-b,ii-a, iii-c,iv-d

D) i-a,ii-b, iii-c,iv-d

Associated Leaders

a. V.O. ChidambaramPilai

b. Prafulla Chandra Ray

c. AshwiniKumarDatta

d. S atish Chandra Mukherjee

86. Arrange the following historical events in the correct Chronological order.

I. Death of Bal GangadharTilak

ⅡⅡ. Formation ofthe Swaraj Party by C.R.Das and Motilal Nehru

IⅢI. Self-Respect Movement byE.V. RamaswamyNaicker

IV. ChauriChaura incident during the Non-Cooperation Movement

A) I-ⅡⅡ-IV-IⅢI

C) IV-I-II-II

B) IV-I-IⅢI-ⅡⅡ

D) I-IV-ⅡⅡ-IⅢⅢ

87. Why was the Shimla deputation(1906)prominent for the rise ofthe Muslim League in India?

A) The deputation was granted the right to form Pakistan by Lord Minto

B) It convinced the Viceroy Minto to reunite Bengal after the partition.

C) Muslims were given the immediate majority ofrepresentation in the Executive Council by Lord Minto

D) The deputation received a positive assurance from Lord Minto regarding separate electorates

88. Who were the two primary brothers who founded the'All India Khilafat Committee'in 1919?

A) Mohammad Jinnah and Shaukat Ali

B) Mohammad Ali and Hasrat Mohani

C) ShaukatAli andAga Khan

D) Mohammad Ali and ShaukatAli

89. In which ofthe following places was a'Parallel Government'(PratiSarkar)formed by NanaPatil during the Quit India Movement?

A) Ballia(United provinces)

C) Saurashtra(Gujarat)

B) Tamluk(West Bengal)

D) Satara(Maharashtra)

90. On which of the following dates the'Indian Independence Act-1947'was given the British RoyalAssent, thereby giving legal effect to the Mountbatten Plan?

A) June 3,1947

B) June 5,1947

C) July 18,1947

D) August 15,1947

91. Match the following-

Directive Principles

i. Organisation ofvillage panchayats

ii. Uniform Civil Code for citizens

b. Article 40

iii. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive

c. Article 51

iv. Promotion ofInternational peace

Choose the correct match:

A) i-a,ii-c, iii-d,iv-b

B) i-b,ii-a, iii-c,iv-d

C) i-b,ii-a, iii-d,iv-c

D) i-a,ii-b, iii-c,iv-d

Constitutional Articles

a. Article 44

d. Article 50

92. The Right to elementary education was made a Fundamental right under Article-2A through which ofthe following ConstitutionalAmendment Acts?

A) 42nd AmendmentAct

B) 44h AmendmentAct

C) 86h AmendmentAct

D) 97hh AmendmentAct

(Set-A)

(17) [P.T.O.

93. Consider the following statements abouttheFundamental Duties(PartIV-A)and select the INCORRECT statements-

I. These Duties were part ofthe original Constitution adopted in 1950.

II. These Duties can always beenforced through Writjurisdiction in the court of law.

IⅢI. Promoting Scientific temper and spirit of enquiry is one of the Fundamental Duties.

A) I only

B) Ⅱonly

C) I andⅡⅡonly

D) All ofthe above

94. Which ofthe following statements are correct about Direct democracy and Indirect democracy?

I. In Indirect democracy, people themselves vote on every legislation.

II. Recall, Initiative and Plebiscite are the instruments of Direct democracy.

ⅢⅢI. Gram sabhas in the villages are the classic example ofthe functioning ofDirect democracy in India.

ⅣV. Direct democracy is also known as Representative democracy, where people elect their representative leaders to make laws.

A) I andⅢⅢonly

B) ⅡⅡandⅢⅢonly

C) I,ⅢⅢⅢandIV only

D) All ofthe above

95. Which ofthe following pairs are correctly matched-

Provisions

I. Conduct of elections of President and Vice President

. Disqualifications for contesting elections

Legal/Constitutional Sources Representation ofthe People Act, 1950

Representation ofthe People Act, 1951

III.Lowering the voting age from 21to18 years

A) I only

C) ⅡandⅢⅢⅡonly

61 Constitutional Amendment Act,1988

B) I andⅡonly

D) All ofthe above

96. Who has the final authority to issue symbols to the political parties and solve disputes between the factions ofa party claiming the same symbol?

A) Parliament ofIndia

B) Supreme Court ofIndia

C) Ministry ofLaw and Justice

D) Election Commission ofIndia

(Set-A) (18)

97. Identify the INCORRECT statements about the Presidential Elections in India-

I. Nominated members ofthe Rajya Sabhado not participate in the election ofthe President, but participate in the impeachment process.

ⅡⅡ. Elected members of the State Legislative Councils also vote in the Election of the President, ifthe state has a bicameral legislature.

ⅢⅢⅢ. According to Article 55(3)ofthe Indian Constitution, the Presidential Election is conducted by the secret ballot.

ⅣV The value ofeach MLA's vote is the same across all states to ensure the principle of"One member, One vote".

A) ⅡandⅢⅢⅢonly

B) I andⅢⅢonly

C) ⅢandⅣⅣonly

D) ⅡandIV only

98. Identify the correct statements about the languages in Schedule Eighth ofthe Indian Constitution-

I. Rajasthani is one ofthe 22 languages currently included in the Eighth Schedule.

ⅡⅡ. The languages-Bodo, Dogri and Maithili were added in the Schedule by the 71** Constitutional Amendment Act.

A) I only

B) Ⅱonly

C) Both I andⅡ

D) NeitherInorⅡ

99. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Article 343 ofthe Indian Constitution, designates Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.

ⅡⅡ. According to Article 350-B of the Indian Constitution,a special officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India.

A) I only

B) Ⅱonly

C) Both I andⅡⅡ

D) Neither InorⅡ

100. Consider the following statements about the United Nations and select the correct option.

I. All UN Members are part ofthe General Assembly.

II. States are admitted to membership by the decision of the GeneralAssembly on the recommendations ofthe Security Council.

IⅢI. Members have the voting rights proportional to their financial contributions only.

A) I andⅡⅡonly

B) ⅡandⅢⅡonly

C) I andⅢⅢonly

D) All ofthe above

101. Which ofthe following statements about the solar system are correct?

I. The planet Venus is also known as'the Morning Star'.

II. The asteroid belt,a region ofrocky debris, lies between the orbits ofMars and Jupiter.

ⅢⅢⅢ. The Kuiper belt,a region oficy bodies, lies between the orbits ofPlanets Saturn and Uranus.

A) I only

B) I andⅡⅡonly

C) ⅡandⅡⅡⅡonly

D) I,Ⅱand IⅢⅢ

(Set-A) (19) [P.T.O.

102.A ship is sailing from the International DateLine on Wednesday, from East to West (from America to Russia). What will happen to the day or date on the ship?

A) Date will remain Wednesday(same day)

B) Date will change to Tuesday(one day back)

C) Date will change to Thursday(one day forward).

D) Day remains the same, only the time changes.

103. On December 22d, Winter Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, which ofthe following statements stands true?

A) The sun never sets at Arctic Circle

B) The sun never sets at the Antarctic Circle

C) The sun stands directly over the Tropic ofCancer

D) The Northern Hemisphere receives more insolation than the southern hemisphere.

104. As one ascends from Jammu plains(300m)to the Himalayas(4000m), what would be the correct ecological sequence ofthe forest types?

A) Tropicalthorns-Himalayan moist temperate-sub-tropical pine-Alpine meadows

B) Sub-tropical pine-Tropical thorns-Alpine meadows-Himalayan moist temperate

C) Tropical thorns-Sub-tropical pine-Himalayan moist temperate-Alpine Meadows

D) Alpine meadows-Himalayan moist temperate-Sub-tropical pine-Tropical thorns

105. The Forest Conservation(Amendment)Act,2023, exempted which ofthe following projects from the prior approval ofthe Central government?

A) When forestland is diverted for constructing any strategic linear projects of national importance within 100km ofIndia's borders.

B) When forestland is diverted for constructing any security-related infrastructure upto 10 hectares.

C) Public utility projects as specified by the central government, not exceeding 5hectares in a left-wing extremism-affected area

D) All ofthe above

106. Match the following Wildlife sanctuaries with the districts they are located in

Wildlife Sanctuaries

i. Hirapora sanctuary

ii. Rajparian(Daksum)sanctuary

iii. Trikuta sanctuary

Choose the correct match:

A) i-a,ii-c, iii-b

B) i-b,ii-a, iii-c

C) i-b,ii-c, iii-a

D) i-a,ii-b, iii-c

[(\mathbf{Set\ \text{-}A})\tag{\mathbf{20}}]

Specific Districts

a. Reasi

b. Shopian

c. Anantnag

107. Which ofthe following pairs are correctly matched?

Dams Rivers

I. Uri-I Jhelum

II. Salal dam

ⅢⅢ. PakulDuldam

ⅣVV Dulhasti dam

A) I andⅡⅡonly

B) I andⅣⅣonly

C) I,ⅡⅡandⅢⅢⅢonly

D) All ofthe above

Chenab

Marusudar

Ravi

108. Which ofthe following is/are examples of In-situ rainwater harvesting?

A) Farm ponds

B) Rooftop rainwater harvesting

C) Underground storage tanks for the storage ofrainwater

D) Storing water in the soil profile through mulching or contour bunding

109. Identify the INCORRECT statements about tunnels in Jammu and Kashmir-

I. Dr.SyamaPrasad Mookerjee Tunnel is a9km long, twin-tube, all-weather road tunnel connecting Udhampur and Ramban.

II. Tunnel T50,a12.77km engineering feat connecting KhariandSumber in Jammu &Kashmir, stands as one ofIndia's longest transportation tunnels constructed under the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link(USBRL)project.

A) I only

B) Ⅱonly

C) Both I andⅡ

D) Neither InorⅡⅡ

110. The UNESCO World Heritage Sites'Mountain Railways ofIndia'recognises which of the following?

A) Kalka-Shimla Railways

C) Darjeeling Himalayan Railways

B) Nilgiri Mountain Railways

D) All ofthe above

111. A computer uses 8-bit2's complement representation. Which of the following operations will cause overflow?

A) 01010101+ 00110011

B) 10011001 + 10101010

C) 01111111 + 00000001

D) 11110000+ 00010000

112. Which of the following statements is true regarding applications of Information Technology?

A) E-governance eliminates the need for physical government offices.

B) E-commerce only involves buying physical goods through websites.

C) Telemedicine allows doctors to provide consultation using communication networks .

D) Online education requires students to bephysically present in a digital classroom.

113. Match the following:

Column-I

i. Firmware

ii. Utility Software

iii. Device Driver

iv. Compiler

Column-II

a. Translates high-level language into machine code

b. Controls communication between operating system and hardware device

c. Stored permanently in ROM to initialize hardware

d. Performs system maintenance tasks like disk cleanup

Choose the correct option:

A) i-c,ii-d, iii-b,iv-a

B) i-b,ii-a, iii-c,iv-d

C) i-d,ii-b, iii-a,iv-c

D) i-a,ii-c, iii-d,iv-b

114. A student is using a computer with 8GBRAM . He opens:

• A web browser with 25 tabs

• A video editing software

• A music player

• A code editor

After sometime, the system becomes slow, but it does NOT crash. The hard disk activity light keeps blinking continuously even though he is not saving or opening files. Which ofthe following is the most accurate explanation?

A) The operating system has stopped multitasking and is running programs one by one.

B) The CPU cache memory is full, so the system is waiting for space to free up.

C) The operating system is using virtual memory and swapping data between RAM and disk.

D) The BIOS is reallocating hardware resources dynamically.

115. A government launches a system where:

• Citizens apply for documents online

• Applications are automatically verified using databases

• SMS/email updates are sent automatically

• Officials approve requests digitally

• Data is stored centrally and accessed across departments

Which ofthe following best explains the real contribution ofInformation Technology

(IT)in this system?

A) IT only replaces paper-based records with digital files.

B) IT reduces manpower by completely eliminating human decision-making.

C) IT integrates communication, data processing, storage, and automation

D) IT mainly provides internet access so citizens can submit forms online.

116. A student uploadsa PDF file to an online PDF-to-JPG converter website. After conversion, he downloads the JPG files but later notices:

• The images are blurred

• File size is much larger than expected

• Text cannot be copied anymore

Which of the following is the most accurate reason?

A) The PDF was converted into raster images.

B) The website reduced internet speed.

C) The browser changed the file extension.

D) The file was uncompressed using ZIP format

117. Which ofthe following statements is true regarding KMZ files and geo-tagged photos?

A) AKMZ file stores only image files with location names.

B) Geo-tagging embeds latitude and longitude inside image metadata.

C) KMZ files cannot contain coordinate information.

D) Uploading ageo-tagged photo automatically creates aKMZ file.

118. Which ofthe following statements is correct regarding computer viruses and modern antivirus systems?

A) A virus can execute automatically without user action once present in memory.

B) Signature-based antivirus detects only previously identified malware patterns.

C) Online registration guarantees protection against zero-day attacks.

D) A firewall and antivirus perform exactly the same function.

119. Which ofthe following is incorrect regarding the use ofmodern computer applications in field operations of a Forest Department?

A) Mobile apps are used for taking photographs of trees.

B) GIS-enabled apps integrate GPS data, satellite imagery

C) Forest apps replace the need for physical field inspections completely.

D) Field applications work without network or data synchronization.

120. Inane-Office system,a confidential file is sent digitally from a section officer to a higher authority. The department wants to ensure that only the intended officer can read the file during transmission. Which ofthe following ensures confidentiality during transmission?

A) Applying a digital signature to the document using a public key infrastructure

B) Encrypting the file using the recipient's public key

C) Adding a watermark to the document

D) Scanning the file before sending it

(Set-A) (23) [P.T.O.