DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Booklet Serial No.1 1 85 5 7

Test Booklet Series

LABORATORYATTENDANT OMR Examination-2026

Time Allowed:120 Minutes Maximum Marks:120

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. Please note that it is the candidates responsibility to encode and fll in the Roll Number, Booklet Serial No. and Test Booklet Series Code A,B, CorD carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer/Response Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Response Sheet liable for rejection.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.

DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test booklet contains 120 items(questions). Each item comprises offour responses(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet/Response Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the appropriate. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer/Response Sheet provided. See directions in the Response Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Response Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should handover to the Invigilator only the Answer/Response Sheet. You are permitted to takeaway with you the Test Booklet and Candidate’s Copy of the Response Sheet .

8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

9. While writing Centre Code and Roll No. on the top of the Answer Sheet/Response Sheet in appropriate boxes use “ONLY BLUE/BLACK BALLPOINT PEN”.

10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE IN THE WRITTEN TEST(OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS PAPERS).

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate,(%)ofthe marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank,i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOTOPENN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

(Set-A)

(Set-A) (2)

1. Select the most appropriate synonym ofthe given word.

Persiflage

A) Criticism

B) Banter

C) Seriousness

D) Argument

2. Select the most appropriate synonym ofthe given word.

Recalcitrant

A) Compliant B) Submissive

C) Rebellious

D) Docile

3. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM ofthe given word.

Succinct

A) Laconic B) Pithy

C) Long-winded D) Concise

4. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM ofthe given word.

Perturbed

A) Calm B) Unsettled

C) Worried

D) Anxious

5. Rearrange the parts ofthe sentence in the correct order.

Ancient mythologies

P. while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes

Q. influencing modern literature, cinema and philosophy

R. preserving cultural traditions through oral storytelling

S. have transcended time and geographical boundaries.

Choose the correct option:

A) SQRP

B) QRPS

C) RPQS

D) PRS Q

6. Which ofthe given options is the most logical sequencing ofthe following sentences to form ameaningful paragraph?

I. They are responsible for pollinating many plants.

Ⅱ. Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production.

ⅢⅢ. However, their population has been steadily declining.

ⅣⅣ. The major reasons for this are habitat loss and pesticides.

Choose the correct option:

A) III-ⅡI-I-IV

B) IV-I-ⅡⅡ-Ⅲ

C) ⅡⅡ-I-ⅢⅢI-IV

D) I-ⅢⅢI-IV-Ⅱ

7. Select the correct direct from of the given sentence:

She asked me why I had been smoking that day

A) She says to me,““Why were you smoking this day?”

B) She said to me,“Why are you smoking today?”

C) She said to me,““Why you smoke today?”

D) She said to me,“Why were you smoking today?”

(Set-A) (3) [P.T.O.

8. Select the most appropriate meaning ofthe given idiom.

Give apiece of one’s mind

A) To advise someone

B) To rebuke someone strongly

C) To donate something valuable

D) To share one’s ideas

9. Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

Who wanders from place to place and lives by begging

A) truant B) itinerant

C) migrant

D) Vagrant

10. Select the correct indirect form ofthe given sentence.“Hello”, he said to his friend. “What can I do for you”?

A) He asked and greeted his friend that what he can do for him.

B) He told hello and asked his friend what he could do for him.

C) He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him.

D) He said hello and asked his friend what can do for him.

Read the passage and answer the questions from 11to13:

Normal science, the activity in which most scientists inevitably spend almost all their time, is based on the assumption that the scientific community knows what the world is like. Scientists take great pains to defend that assumption, often restricting their vision to the phenomena that the existing paradigm has defined as relevant. When research proceeds in this fashion, findings tend to be incremental, reinforcing the established framework rather than challenging it. Yet, overtime, anomalies-empirical observations that cannot be explained within the current paradigm-accumulate. Initially,, these anomalies are dismissed as errors or as problems to be solved within the existing theoretical structure. However, as these anomalies grow in number and significance, they begin to erode confidence in the prevailing paradigm.

The resolution of such crises is not a straightforward process of falsification, as Popper might suggest but rather a transformation in the very way scientists see the world. Scientific revolutions occur when a new paradigm emerges-one that is not merely an extension of the old buta fundamental reconceptualization ofreality. This shift is not purely logical or empirical;it involves a radical change in perspective, akin to a gestalt switch. The Copernican Revolution, for example, did not merely adjust astronomical calculations;it redefined the very framework through which celestial motion was understood. Similarly, Einstein’s theory ofrelativity did not just modify Newtonian mechanics but replaced its foundational assumptions about space and time.

11. According to the passage, why do scientific revolutions represent a rupture rather than a continuation of prior science?

A) Because scientists abandon objectivity and turn to speculation.

B) Because competing paradigms redefine questions and methods, making continuity impossible

C) Because new paradigms invalidate all previous findings.

D) Because scientists stop collecting empirical data.

(Set-A) (4)

12. From the above passage, Identify the voice used in the sentence:

“Anomalies are dismissed as errors or as problems to be solved within the existing theoretical structure.”

A) Active voice

B) Middle voice

C) Passive voice

D) Reflexive voice

13. What type ofclause is used in the sentence given below from the above passage:

“Yet, overtime, anomalies that cannot be explained within the current paradigm accumulate”.

A) Noun clause

B) Relative clause

C) Adverbial clause

D) Independent clause

14. Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively and with surgical precision, dismantling the opposition’s case piece by logic piece.

A) dismantling the opposition’s case

B) The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively

C) and with surgical precision

D) piece by logic piece

15. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

(I) She quick finished her homework/(II)before dinner, eager to join her friends/

(ⅢⅢⅢ) at the park for/(IV)an exciting game ofsoccer.

A) V B) I

C) ⅢⅢ

D) Ⅱ

16. Select the word with the correct spelling to fill in the blank. Hiren loves to use words while writing anything.

A) colo quial

B) colloquil

C) colloquial

D) colloqual

17. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Despite the challenges faced during the expedition, the team managed to reach their destination.

A) formidable

B) negligible

C) trivial

D) insignificant

18. Identify the correct type ofpronoun in the following sentence.

I enjoyed myselfduring the holidays.

Here, Myself is a pronoun.

A) demonstrative

B) possessive

C) distributive

D) reflexive

(Set-A)

(5) [P.T.O.

19. Which word has a spelling mistake?

A) Convalescence

C) Obsequious

B) Conflagaration

D) Reticent

20. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select‘No substitution required’’.

“Can you give me so many examples ofsubordinate clauses?”, the teacher asked the class.

A) some more examples of

C) some few examples of

B) some many examples of

D) No substitution required

21. The sum of the 3rd and the 44h term of an A.P.is19 and that of the 1 and the 7h term is 22. Find the 9hh term .

A) 16 B) 17

C) 15 D) 26

22. Which one ofthe following is true?

A) √√+√√> √6+√2

C) √5+√3= √6+ √2

B) √5+√3< √6+√2

D) (√5+√3)(√6+√z)=1

23. A right circular cone oflargest volume is cutout from a solid wooden hemisphere.. The remaining material is what percentage ofthe volume of the original hemisphere?

A) 33.33% B) 50%

C) 75% D) 66.66%

24. Ifxx andy are real numbers, then the minimum value of (x^{2}+4x y+6y^{2}-4y+4) is

A) -4 B) 0

C) 2 D) 4

25. The sum ofthe height and radius ofthe base ofa solid right circular cylinder is 46cm. If the total surface area ofthe solid cylinder is 6072cm², what is the volume(incm3) ofthe cylinder?(take π=22/7)

A) 6072π B) 1085π

C) 3036π D) 11025π

26. Two metallic right circular cones having their heights 3.8cm and 4.6cm and radii of their bases 2.1 cm each, have been melted together and recast into a sphere. The diameter(incm)of the sphere is:

A) 4.2

B) 1.4

C) 3.5

) 6.3

(Set-A) (6)

27. Shopkeeper bought 40 pieces of an article at a rate of Rs. 50 per item. He sold 35 pieces with 20% profit. The remaining 5 pieces were found to be damaged and he sold them with 10% loss. Find his overall profit percentage.

A) 30% B) 10%

C) 16.25%

D) 32.5%

28. Ifthe difference between the compound interest and simple interest at 17% on a sum of money for 2 years(compounded annually)isRs.433.50, then the sum(inRs.)is:

A) 12,000 B) 15,000

C) 25,000 D) 20,000

29. X andY are two numbers whoseA.M.is41 and G.M.is9. Which ofthe following may be a value ofX?

30. The cost price of articles X andY is the same. Article Xis sold at 20% profit and article Y is sold for Rs.126 less than the selling price ofX. Ifthe net profit by selling both the articles is 14%, then what is the cost price(inRs.)ofeach article?

A) 1,260

B) 840

C) 1,080

D) 1,050

31. AT.V. is sold at 8% gain. Had it been sold for Rs.2553 less;there would have been loss of 15%. To gain 18% the selling price(inRs.)ofT.V. would be:

A) 11100 B) 13098

C) 15000 D) 9102

32. A card is drawn at random from a pack of 100 cards numbered 1to100. The probability of drawing a number which is a square, is

A) 1/10 B) 1/100

C) 9/10 D) 90/100

33. A sphere is placed in a cube so that it touches all the faces ofthe cube.If‘a’is the ratio of the volume ofthe cube to the volume ofthe sphere and‘b’is the ratio ofthe surface area ofthe sphere to the surface area ofthe cube, then the value of‘ab’is:

34. In a medical transaction,17 times the cost price is equal to 8 times the sum of the cost price and the selling price. What is the gain or loss percentage?

A) Loss 15%

B) Gain 17.5%

C) Gain 12.5%

D) Loss 30%

35. It is decided that a loan of 10,000 will be paid offat the rate of 800 per month in 15equal instalments. Find out the rate ofreturn on investment.

36. A man ordered 4 pairs of black socks and some pairs ofbrown socks. The price of a black socks is double that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill the clerk interchanged the number of black and brown Pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 50%. The ratio ofthe number ofblack and brown pairs ofsocks in the original order was:

A) 2:1 B) 1:4

C) 1:2

D) 4:1

37. A right circular cone is exactly fitted inside a cube in such away that the edges ofthe base ofthe cone are touching the edges ofone of the faces of the cube and the vertex is on the opposite face of the cube. If the volume of the cube is 343 cc, what approximately is the volume ofthe cone?

38. The compound interest(compounding annually)on a certain sum at the rate of 8percent per annum for two years is Rs.6656. What would be the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate ofinterest for two years?

A) Rs.6224 B) Rs.6400

C) Rs.5600

D) Rs.6336

39. The length breadth and height ofa rectangular box are in the ratio 3:2:4, respectively,, and the cost of covering it with a sheet of paper at the rate of Rs.1.50 per square metre is Rs.1,950. Find 50% of the volume of the box(inm3)

A) 1500 B) 1750

C) 1800 D) 1600

40. A dice is thrown once. Find the probability that 3 or greater than 3 turns up..

41. Complete the Number Series:

Number Series 5,11,23,47,95,?

A) 189 B) 191

C) 187 D) 193

42. Complete the Number Series:

Number Series 3,8,15,24,35,?

A) 46

B) 48

C) 49

D) 50

(Set-A)

(8)

43. Complete the Number Series:

Number Series 1,3,6,10,15,?

A) 18 B) 20

C) 21 D) 22

44. Complete the Letter Series:

Letter series Z,X,U,Q,L,?

A) G

B) F

C) I

D) J

45. Complete the Letter Series:

Letter series AZ,BY,CX,DW,?

46. Complete the Letter Series:

Letter series A,C,B,E,D,H,?

A) F B) G

C) E D) I

47. If COMPUTER is coded as FRPSXWHU, how is SCIENCE coded?

A) VFLHQFH B) VFNHQFH

C) VFJHQFH D) UFLHQFH

48. If DOG is written as WLT, how is CAT written?

49. Ravi walks 15m east, then 12m north, then 15m west, and finally 5m south. In which direction is Ravinow with respect to his starting point?

A) North B) North-West

C) South

D) North-East

50. A man faces south. He turns 90°clockwise, then 180°anticlockwise, and again 270°clockwise. Which direction is he facing now?

A) North B) East

C) South

D) West

51. IfA+B means A is the mother of B,A-B means A is the brother of B,A×B means A is the father ofB, What does P-Q×R+S mean?

A) P is maternal uncle of S

B) P is paternal uncle of S

C) P is father ofS

D) P is brother of S

(Set-A)

(9) [P.T.O.

52. Introducing a woman, Raj said,“She is the wife ofthe only son ofmy mother-in-law.”How is the woman related to Raj?

A) Sister

B) Wife

C) Sister-in-law

D) Cousin

53. Consider the following statement:

Statement:

“There has been a sharp increase in online education platforms.”

Possible Causes:

I. Affordable internet availability

II. Increased demand for flexible learning

Choose the correct option:

A) Only I

B) OnlyⅡⅡ

C) Both I andⅡⅡ

D) Neither InorⅡ

54. Consider the following statement:

Statement:

All teachers are educated.

Conclusion:

Some educated people are teachers.

55. A car covers a distance at 50km/h and returns at 40km/h. What is the average speed for the wholejourney?

56. Ifa man increases his speed by 25%, he takes 1hour less to cover a certain distance. What was the original time?

A) 3 hours B) 4 hours

C) 5 hours

D) 6 hours

57. Two trains oflengths 120m and 180maremoving in opposite directions at 54km/h and 72km/h respectively. How long will they take to cross each other?

A) 12 sec B) 9 sec

C) 15 sec D) 20 sec

58. Consider the following statement:

Statements:

All fruits are sweet. All apples are fruits .

Conclusion:

All apples are sweet.

A) True

B) False

C) Cannot be determined

D) Invalid

(Set-A) (10)

59. Assertion(A)and Reason(R).

Assertion(A):All squares are rectangles.

Reason (R):All rectangles have four right angles.

Choose the correct option:

A) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation ofA

B) Both A and Rare true but R is not the correct explanation ofA

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

60. Assertion(A)and Reason(R).

Assertion(A):No cat is a dog.

Reason(R):Some dogs are pets.

Choose the correct option:

A) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation ofA

B) Both A and Rare true but R is not the correct explanation ofA

C) A is true but R is false

D) A is false but R is true

61. Consider the following statements regarding India’s nuclear energy policy and the SHANTIAct,2025.

(I) The SHANTIAct,2025, allows private sector participation in nuclear power generation.

(II) India has set a target ofachieving 100GW ofinstalled nuclear power capacity by the year 2030.

(III) The SHANTIAct,2025 retains unlimited supplier liability for nuclear damage to ensure enhanced accountability.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) I only

B) I andⅡonly

C) I andⅡⅡⅡonly

D) I,Ⅱand IⅢⅢ

62. Match List-I with List-Ⅱand select the correct option.

Military Exercises

Partner Country

i. YudhAbhyaas

a. USA

ii. Zapad

iii. Mitra-Shakti

iv. Bright Star

d. Russia

Choose the correct match:

A) i-a,ii-b, iii-c,iv-d

B) i-a,ii-d, iii-c,iv-b

C) i-a,ii-b, iii-d,iv-c

D) i-d,ii-b, iii-a,iv-c

(Set-A) (11) [P.T.O.

c. SriLanka

b. Egypt

63. Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council.

I. As perArticle 23, the Security Council shall consist offifteen Members of the United Nations.

II. The non-permanent members ofthe Security Council shall be elected for a term of five years.

ⅢⅢⅢ. A retiring non-permanent member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) I only

B) IandⅡⅡonly

C) I andⅢⅢonly

D) All ofthe above

64. Consider the following statements about India’s Space mission’s achievements.

I. The Axiom Mission 4 has enabled human spaceflight for India, Poland, and Hungary, with each nation’s first government-sponsored flight in more than 40years.

II. SpaDeX Mission made India the first country in the world to successfully carry out a satellite docking process in Low Earth Orbit(LEO).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) I only

B) Ⅱonly

C) Both I and II

D) Neither INor II

65. In India’s three-stage nuclear program, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor(PFBR)is considered important because:

I. It is designed to use uranium-238 to breed plutonium in a sodium-cooled fast reactor design.

II. Thorium-232, though not fissile, is proposed to be used as a blanket material.

III. By transmutation, Thorium will create fissile Uranium-233, which will be used as fuel in the third stage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) I andⅡonly

B) I andⅢⅢonly

C) Ⅱand IⅡⅡonly

D) I,ⅡⅡand III

66. ITER is considered important for India and the world because

I. It demonstrates sustainable, clean fusion energy for the future.

II. It allows India to participate in cutting-edge nuclear fusion research.

IⅢI. It provides immediate commercial electricity to reduce fossil fuel dependency..

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) I only

B) I andⅡonly

C) I andⅢⅢonly

D) I,Ⅱand IⅢⅢ

(Set-A)

(12)

67. Identify the correct statements about the Nobel Peace Prize,2025.

I. It was awarded to Maria Corina Machado ofVenezuela.

II. According to the Norwegian Nobel Committee, it can be transferred by the recipient to any other person.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A) I only

B) Ⅱonly

C) Both I andⅡⅡ

D) Neither InorⅡⅡ

68. Consider the following statements:

I. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India accounts for more than 5% of global merchandise exports.

II. As perthe Economic Survey 2025-26, India’s service imports were greater than its exports.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) I only

B) Ⅱonly

C) Both I andⅡⅡ

D) NeitherInor II

69. Consider the following statements:

Assertion(A):Arise in per capita GNP always reflects an improvement in living standards.

Reason(R):Income levels are fundamental metrics ofEconomic development.

Which of the statements is/are correct:

A) Both A and Rare true, and R is the correct explanation ofA

B) Both A and Rare true, but R is not the correct explanation ofA

C) A is true,R is false

D) A is false,R is true

70. Two places,X(terrestrial)andY(marine), are at the same latitude. During summer,, Place X records 42°C and PlaceY records 32°C. During winter, Place X records 0°C and Place Y records 10°C. What is the most plausible explanation?

A) Variation in the altitudes of Place X andY

B) Land has a higher specific heat capacity than oceans

C) Land has a lower specific heat capacity than oceans

D) Variation in thermal insulation at places X andY

71. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses aims to make India self-sufficient in pulses by 2030-31.

Statement II: The mission seeks to reduce import dependence, boost domestic production ofpulses and sustainably improve farmers’incomes.

Which of the statement is/are correct:

A) Statement I and StatementⅡare correct

B) Statement I and StatementⅡare incorrect

C) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

(Set-A) (13) [P.T.O.

72. Match the following ports with their associated features

Ports

i. Kamrajarport

ii. JNPT port

iii. Paradip port

iv. Vizhinjam port

Choose the correct option

A) i-a,ii-b, iii-c,iv-d

B) i-c,ii-d, iii-a,iv-b

C) i-a,ii-c, iii-d,iv-b

D) i-c,ii-a, iii-b,iv-d

Special features

a. first corporatised major port

b. first deep-water transhipment hub

c. India’s first landlord-model port

d. Top cargo-handling major port

73. Arrange the following battles ofthe First Anglo-Sikh War in chronological order::

I. Battle ofMudki

II. Battle ofFerozeshah

ⅢⅢ. Battle ofAliwal

ⅣⅣ. Battle ofSobraon

Choose the correct option

A) I-ⅡⅡ-ⅢⅢ-IV B) I-ⅢⅢI-ⅡⅡ-IV

C) Ⅱ-I-ⅢⅢI-IV D) ⅡⅡ-III-I-IV

74. Which ofthe following statements about Raufis/are correct?

I. Raufis a traditional folk dance performed on typical folk songs in the Kashmir dialect.

II. It is typically a solo performance by a woman only.

ⅢⅢ. Dancers wear traditional Kashmiri attire, including pherans(long, flowing gowns) and ornatejewelry.

Choose the correct option:

75. How many ofthe following pairs are correct?

Choose the correct option:

A) One pair only

C) Three pairs only

B) Two pairs only

D) All ofthe above

(Set-A)

(14)

76. Match the following:

i. Baramulla

ii. Udhampur

iii. Samba

iv. Ramban

Choose the correct option:

A) i-a,ii-b, iii-c,iv-d

B) i-b,ii-c, iii-d,iv-a

C) i-b,ii-a, iii-d,iv-c

D) i-a,ii-c, iii-b,iv-d

Districts Products under One District One

Product(ODOP)

a. Pickles

b. Apples

c. Honey

d. Mushroom products

77. Identify the correct statements about the MUMKIN scheme operational in J&KUT..

I. “Mumkin-Livelihood Generation Scheme”isan initiative specifically aimed at empowering its young population.

II. It provides uptoRs.80000 subsidy or 10% of the on-road price, whichever is lower for unemployed youth to purchase small commercial vehicles.

IⅢI. The age ofthe applicant should be between 18to35 years.

Choose the correct option:

A) I only

C) I andⅢⅢonly

B) I andⅡonly

D) I,ⅡandⅢ

78. Which ofthe following species in the J&K region has Endangered status as per the IUCN Red Book?

I. Hangul

ⅡⅡ. Snow Leopard

ⅢⅢ. Ibex

IV. Himalayan Tahr

V Markhor

VI. Cheer Pheasant

Choose the correct option:

A) I,II,IV and V only

B) ⅡⅡ,IV,V and VI only

C) ⅡⅡ,IⅢI,IV and VI only

D) All of the above

79. Which ofthe following was not a provision under the J&K ReorganizationAct,2019?

A) The J&K High Court became the common high court for both UTs.

B) Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only..

C) The UTofJ&K will have its own legislative assembly of 107-114 members.

D) The act provides that the administration ofJammu and Kashmir will be as per Article 239A ofthe Indian Constitution.

(Set-A) (15) [P.T.O.

80. Which ofthe following rivers are tributaries ofthe river Jhelum?

I. NikiTawi

Ⅱ. Veshaw river

Ⅲ. Brengi river

IV. Jajhar

V Rambiara river

Choose the correct option:

A) I,ⅡandⅡⅡonly

B) Ⅱ,ⅢⅢandIV only

C) ⅡⅡ,ⅢⅢⅢand V only

D) ⅡⅡ,ⅡⅢI,ⅣⅣand V only

81. Ifthe distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational force becomes:

A) Double

B) Four times

C) Half

D) One-fourth

82. Match the following Organic Acids with their corresponding sources

ACIDS SOURCES

i. Oxalic acid

a. Dark chocolate

ii. Acetic acid

b. Ant sting

iii. Ascorbic acid

c. Apples

d. Guava, amla

v Malic acid

Choose the correct option:

e. Vinegar

A) i-a,ii-b, iii-c,iv-d,v-e

B) i-e,ii-c, iii-d,iv-a,v-b

C) i-b,ii-a, iii-e,iv-c,v-d

D) i-a,ii-e, iii-d,iv-b,v-c

83. Identify the correct source of energy based on the following statements.

I. It is anon-renewable but low-carbon energy source.

ⅡⅡ. It is a reliable source ofenergy butposes challenges related to radioactive waste disposal and safety concerns.

ⅢⅢⅢ. A huge amount ofenergy is released through the fission process.

A) Compressed Natural Gas

B) Petroleum Products

C) Fossil Fuels

D) Nuclear Fuels

84. Which ofthe following statements is NOT related to Ocean Energy?

A) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above thesea surface and cold ocean water to drive a turbine.

B) Tidal barrage systems are dam-like structures across ocean inlets that use tidal flow through turbines during high and low tides to generate electricity.

C) Tidal stream systems use underwater turbines placed in moving tidal currents to convert the kinetic energy of flowing water into electricity.

D) Wave energy systems convert the mechanical motion of ocean waves into electrical energy.

(16)

iv. Methanoic acid

85. Which of the following non-metals exists in the liquid state at room temperature?

A) Sulphur

B) Bromine

C) Phosphorus

D) Iodine

86. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding metals?

I. Form basic oxides

Ⅱ. Good reducing agents

ⅢⅢⅢ. High electronegativity

ⅣVV High ionization energy

Choose the correct option:

A) Only I,ⅡⅡ

B) OnlyⅢandIV

C) OnlyI,ⅡⅡandIV

D) OnlyⅡI,ⅢI andIV

87. Which gas is produced when water reacts with calcium?

A) Hydrogen

B) Oxygen

C) Carbon dioxide

D) Nitrogen

88. What happens when magnesium sulphate solution is added to copper metal?

A) Copper displaces magnesium, forming copper sulphate

B) Magnesium displaces copper, forming magnesium sulphate

C) Hydrogen gas is evolved

D) No reaction occurs

89. Arrange the following metals in decreasing order of reactivity

I. Gold

Ⅱ. Calcium

ⅢⅢ. Silver

ⅣⅣ. Cobalt

V Magnesium

VI. Nickel

VII. Platinum

VIII. Lithium

Choose the correct option:

A) I<Ⅱ<ⅢⅢ<ⅣⅣ<V< VI<VⅡ<VⅢⅢⅢ

B) VⅡⅡ<Ⅱ<V<ⅣⅣ<VI<ⅢⅢⅢ<VⅡⅡ<I

C) VⅢⅢI<V<Ⅱ<ⅣⅣ<VI<I<Ⅲ<VI

D) VⅢⅢⅡ<VⅡⅡ<Ⅲ<ⅣⅣ<VI<V<ⅡⅡ< I

90. Which ofthe following pairs is correct with respect to ores and the metals present in these ores?

A) Sulphate ores-;Iron(Iron pyrites,FeS)

B) Oxide ores-Zinc(Hemimorphite,2ZnO·SiO H,O)

C) Halide ores-Silver(Horn silver,AgCl)

D) Silicate ores-Lead(Anglesite,PbSO)

(Set-A) (17) [P.T.O.

91. Which ofthe following statements is/are correct regarding the extraction of metals in accordance with the activity series?

I. Highly reactive metals(like sodium and potassium)are extracted by electrolysis oftheir molten compounds.

ⅡⅡ. Moderately reactive metals(zinc, iron, lead, etc.)are extracted by reduction using carbon or carbon monoxide.

IⅢI. Less reactive metals(copper, mercury)can be obtained simply by heating ores.

Choose the correct option

A) OnlyⅡⅡ

B) Only I and III

C) OnlyⅡⅡand III

D) All of the above

92. Which term best describes the mode of nutrition in both yeast and mushrooms?

A) Saprophytic

B) Autotrophic

C) Parasitic

D) Holozoic

93. Which plant structures function as gateways for gas exchange?

A) Lenticels B) Stomata

C) Xylem D) Phloem

94. Which ofthe following terms is NOT related to the structural and functional unit of the kidney?

A) Nephrons B) Bowman’s capsule

C) Glottis

D) Glomerulus

95. Classify the following substances as biodegradable and non-biodegradable.

A) Biodegradable:Animal bones, Leather;Non-Biodegradable:DDT, Mercury, Lead, Silver foils

B) Biodegradable: DDT, Animal bones, Leather;Non-Biodegradable:Mercury, Lead, Silver foils

C) Biodegradable:Mercury, Lead;Non-Biodegradable:DDT, Silver foils, Leather,, Leather

D) Biodegradable:DDT, Silver foils, Animal bones;Non-Biodegradable:Mercury,, Lead, Leather

96. The correct sequence in an aquatic food chain is:

A) Algae→ Crab→→Sea urchins→Squid→ Spotted dolphin→Tiger shark

B) Sea urchins→Algae→Crab→ Squid→Tiger shark→→Spotted dolphin

C) Algae→ Sea urchins→→Crab→→Squid→→Spotted dolphin→ Tiger shark

D) Tiger shark (\rightarrow) Spotted dolphin→→Squid→ Crab→→Sea urchins→→Algae

97. Which ofthe following ozone-depleting substances are correctly matched with their primary sources?

A) Halons-Soil fumigant

B) Methyl bromide-Degreasing solvent

C) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons(HCFCs)-Fire extinguishers

D) Chlorofluorocarbons(CFCs)-Refrigerants and aerosol propellants

(Set-A) (18)

98. In Mendel’’s pea plant experiments , which ofthe following is recessive?

A) The trait that appears in all (\mathrm{F}_{\mathrm{r}}) hybrids

B) The traitthat hides in (\mathrm{F}{\mathrm{r}}) but reappears in (\mathrm{F}{2})

C) The trait that increases with each generation

D) The trait that only appears in the parental generation

99. Match the categories ofasexual reproduction in plants with their correct examples::

i. Vegetative propagation

ii. Fragmentation

iii. Budding

iv. Spore formation

Choose the correct option:

A) i-b,ii-a, iii-c,iv-d

B) i-a,ii-b, iii-d,iv-c

C) i=c,ii-d, iii=a,iv-b

D) i-d,ii=c, iii-b,iv-a

a. Mosses and liverworts

b. Begonia and Bryophyllum

c. Yeast and Hydra

d. Clostridium and Bacillus

100. Which ofthe following statements is/are correct with respect to Vertebrates?

I. These area subphylum of chordates that are characterized by the presence of a vertebral column or backbone.

Ⅱ. They show bilateral symmetry.

IⅢⅢ. It includes animals such as fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals.

Choose the correct option:

A) Only I

B) Only I andⅡⅡ

C) Only I and III

D) All ofthe above

101. In a computer laboratory, a system boots normally and successfully compiles a program, but the program does not execute and no error message is displayed. The most likely cause is:

A) Faulty keyboard or mouse

B) Insufficient RAM

C) Disconnected network cable

D) Corrupted printer driver

(Set-A) (19) [P.T.O.

102. Which ofthe following statements correctly describes a tactile display(also known as arefreshable braille display)?

A) It is an electro-mechanical device that uses round-tipped pins to represent Braille characters by raising them through holes in a flat surface.

B) It is a specialized monitor that uses haptic vibrations across a glass screen to simulate the texture ofprinted text.

C) It is a peripheral device that converts text from a computer screen into high-speed audio for the visually impaired.

D) It is a static hardware interface where Braille characters are permanently engraved into a metal plate for reading.

103. Which statement is correctregarding the interaction between computer hardware and system software?

A) System software is hardware-independent because it interacts with hardware only viahigh-level languages.

B) Firmware is classified as application software since it is stored in non-volatile memory and executes user-level tasks.

C) An operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware and application software by managing resources and providing hardware abstraction.

D) Installing application software can directly modify CPU microarchitecture without involving system software.

104. Which ofthe following statements about input and output devices is MOST accurate?

A) A capacitive touchscreen is strictly an output device because it displays images, and the touch functionality is handled by the operating system, not the hardware.

B) Optical Character Recognition(OCR)scanners are purely input devices since they convert physical text into digital form, and cannot provide feedback or output to the user.

C) A common digitizer tablet with a stylus is both an input and output device because it can detect pressure and movement and can also display feedback to the user through a connected screen .

D) Braille displays are output devices because they allow visually impaired users to sense the display with haptic vibrations.

105. A school computer lab has 20 identical computers. Recently, several systems started showing some issue:the computer powers on(fans spin and lights turn on), but nothing appears on the monitor and no startup sound is heard. The monitors and cables have been tested and are working fine.A technician swaps the operating system drive from a working computer into one of the faulty systems, but the problem still persists. Which ofthe following is the most likely cause ofthe issue?

A) The operating system is corrupted and needs to be reinstalled

B) The graphics driver is outdated and incompatible with the monitor

C) A hardware failure in a core internal component

D) The monitor resolution settings are unsupported by the operating system.

106. A student creates the following VBA script in MS Access and attaches it to the “On Click”event ofa button on a form: A) It filters and displays only students who scored below 40 marks in the form

B) It automatically updates every record in the students table

C) It deletes all records ofstudents who scored below 40 marks

D) It creates a new table that stores the result(Pass/Fail)separately from the Students table

107. Anayais making along reportin MS Word. She wants pages 1-3 to use Roman numerals (i,ii, iii)and the rest to start from 1,2,3.…. She does not know how to set different page numbering styles in one document. What should shedo?

A) Use Mixed Numbering from the Insert tab

B) Add a section break and format page numbers separately

C) Use the Pagination Wizard from the Layout tab and assign custom numbering templates

D) Change the numbering style from the Font settings

108. Riya works in a small office where all computers are connected through aLAN using Ethernet cables, but the network is not connected to any ISPorthe Internet. She tries to send an email to her boss using Gmail. Can Riya send the email?

A) Yes, because Gmail can temporarily store emails intheLAN cache and sync later

B) No, because Gmail requiresaWi-Fi network to operate

C) Yes, because Ethernet supports internal cloud routing for web apps

D) No, because G mail needs Internet access to contact its remote servers

(21) [P.T.O.

109. While sending an email with a large attachment,Aaravnoticesthat the email client automatically uploads the file and shares it as a link instead of attaching it directly. Which Internet feature makes this possible?

A) Cloud storage integration

B) SMTP compression

C) Dynamic attachmentrouting

D) Internet caching protocol

110. Match the terms(Column-A)with their most accurate descriptions(Column-B):

Column-A

i. Cache Memory

ii. Register

iii. Interpreter

iv. Compiler

Choose the correct option:

A) i-d,ii-b, iii-a,iv-c

B) i-b,ii-c, iii-d,iv-a

C) i-c,ii-d, iii-a,iv-b

D) i-b,ii-d, iii-c,iv-a

Column-B

a. Translates entire programs before execution

b. Named memory locations build in processor

c. Executes instructions one line at a time without separate object code

d. Small storage location inside CPU for immediate operations

111. A digital artist wants to create detailed and beautiful digital drawings on his computer.. He finds it difficult to draw accurately using only a mouse. Which device would help him draw naturally and precisely on the computer?

A) Graphics tablet

B) Digital stroke enhancer

C) Precision art interface pad

D) Visual rendering controller

112. A video editor installs a new high-end graphics card in her computer to speedup video rendering. After installation, the computer detects the card physically. Still, video editing software cannot use its advanced features until it installsan additional component that allows the operating system and applications to communicate properly with the hardware. What does she need to install?

A) Hardware synchronization module

B) Digital performance translator

C) System interface accelerator

D) Device driver

113. Which ofthe following statements is NOT true about virtual memory in an operating system?

A) It allows programs to use more memory than the physically available RAM

B) It uses disk space to extend the apparent main memory

C) It permanently stores running processes in secondary storage

D) It loads only required portions ofprograms into RAM when needed

(Set-A) (22)

114. Which component of an operating system is primarily responsible for maintaining the mapping between filenames and their physical storage locations?

A) File system directory structure

B) Memory allocation dispatcher

C) Data locality controller

D) Storage routing interface

115. Acybersecurity researcher needs an operating system mainly for network testing, scripting, and advanced system customization, with strong command-line tools and open-source flexibility. Which operating system would be most suitable?

A) Windows

B) Linux

C) MacOS

D) Standalone firmwareOS

116. Which of the following options best explains how a web browser loads a webpage when a user enters aURL?

A) Browser downloads the page directly from the ISP

B) SMTP resolves the name and transfers the webpage

C) DNS finds the IPandHTTP/HTTPS loadsthe page

D) The search engine fetches and renders the page

117. Aarohi is creating a presentation and wants a logo to appear automatically in the same position on all current and future slides, without manually adding it to each slide. Which feature should she use?

A) Global Slide Replication

B) Layout Replicator

C) Theme Designer

D) Slide Master

118. Aditi wants Excel to calculate the average ofcells A1toA5 only iftheir total sum is greater than 100, otherwise she wants Excel to display““Low””. She writes the following formula:

=IF((SUM(A1:A5)>100,(AVERAGE(A1:A5),“Low”)))

A) Yes, it will work correctly for all values

B) Yes, but it works only with integers

C) No, it will not work because ofa syntax issue

D) No, it will not work because ofincorrect logic

119. Which feature allows a user to apply a uniform layout, fonts, and design elements automatically across all pages or slides in a document or presentation?

A) Global formatting synchronizer

B) Master template system

C) Layout replication engine

D) Universal style broadcaster

120. Which feature enables software to store, organize, and manipulate structured data in rows and columns for efficient analysis?

A) Matrix virtualization framework

B) Database management

C) Grid processing interface

D) Structured data renderer

(Set-A) (23) [P.T.O.

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